Thought for the day

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    In Deutronomy 22 5 it's says a man shall not dress as a woman or a woman as a man. This part of the bible was codified 500-400 BCE. Does this mean that public cross dressing has been going on for over 2500 years?
11 comments
  • J L, Peter Oram, and juile foster like this
  • Trines x x I misread you there for a moment Jules, I thought you had written 'douche'. x x
  • Josephine Green OK so we've now established that intersex has existed for a long time. But I was thinking that to codify a rule in the Torah there must have been enough cross-dressing (both ways) to worry the religious authorities back then. If it was very uncommon why...  more
  • Trines x x Probably even back then they had terrorists trying to smuggle in explosives under women's abayas! x x
  • Pauline Smith I think the people who wrote the Torah were up there with the Puritans and Muslims as intolerant bigots. I am part way through reading Simon Schama's History of the Jews (I am around 300BC right now...and it's heavy going) and there are a lot of rules...  more